Are you still guessing the answers to computer questions in your exams? You’re losing marks without even realizing it! Whether you’re preparing for SSC, Banking, Railways, JKSSB, or any other government exam Computer Awareness is the secret weapon to boost your score and stand out from the crowd.

In this Article, we’ve compiled the Top 100+ most important and frequently asked Computer MCQs with correct answers and short explanations. From MS Excel, PowerPoint, and Networking to Cyber Security and Internet Basics etc.

Top 100+ Computer MCQS

Q1. Abacus can perform?
a) Addition
b) Subtraction
c) Multiplication
d) Both (a) and (b)

The right Answer is: d) Both (a) and (b)

Brief Explanation
The abacus, an ancient calculating device, was mainly used for basic arithmetic operations like addition and subtraction.

Q2. The Analytical Engine was invented during the first generation of computers used Which memory unit?
a) RAM
b) Floppies
c) Counter wheels
d) Cards

The right Answer is: c) Counter wheels

Brief Explanation
The Analytical Engine, designed by Charles Babbage, used mechanical counter wheels as its memory unit, representing early mechanical memory storage.

Q3. Which of the following was the first general-purpose electronic computer?
a) ADVAC
b) ADSAC
c) UNIVAC
d) EDVAC

The right Answer is: c) UNIVAC

Brief Explanation
UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer) was the first general-purpose electronic digital computer developed in the United States.

Q4. The second generation of computers are?
a) IBM 7094 series
b) IBM 1400 series
c) CDC 164
d) All

The right Answer is: d) All

Brief Explanation
All these computers belong to the second generation, which used transistors instead of vacuum tubes and were faster and more reliable.

Q5. The first computer which provided storage is?
a) EDSAC
b) EDBAC
c) MARK-I
d) ACE

The right Answer is: a) EDSAC

Brief Explanation
EDSAC (Electronic Delay Storage Automatic Calculator) was the first computer to provide storage capabilities using delay line memory.

Q6. Analog computer works on the supply of?
a) Continuous electric pulses
b) Electric pulses but not continuous
c) Magnetic strength
d) Natural strength

The right Answer is: a) Continuous electric pulses

Brief Explanation
Analog computers process data in continuous form and operate using continuous electrical signals.

Q7. The clock rate of CPU is measured in which unit?
a) Milliseconds
b) Microhertz
c) Nanoseconds
d) MHz or GHz

The right Answer is: d) MHz or GHz

Brief Explanation
CPU speed or clock rate is typically measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), indicating millions or billions of cycles per second.

Q8. A bus used to connect the monitor to CPU processor is?
a) PCI bus
b) SCSI bus
c) Memory bus
d) Both a and b

The right Answer is: b) SCSI bus

Brief Explanation
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a bus used to connect various hardware devices like monitors and storage to the CPU.

Q9. What is the full form of HTML?
a) High Transfer Machine Language
b) High Transmission Markup Language
c) Hyper Text Markup Language
d) Hypermedia Markup Language

The right Answer is: c) Hyper Text Markup Language

Brief Explanation
HTML is the standard markup language used to create web pages.

Q10. Which of the following statements is not correct about IP address?
a) IP address is always unique for each computer.
b) An IP address consists of four bytes (or 32 bits) each of which can be a number from 0 to 255.
c) For browsing or sending an email, an IP address assigned to the computer is required.
d) All are correct

The right Answer is: d) All are correct

Brief Explanation
All the mentioned statements about IP addresses are accurate and describe its structure and purpose.

Q11. Optical mouse was built by?
a) IBM, 1920
b) Intel, 1930
c) Microsoft, 1999
d) Dell, 2000

The right Answer is: c) Microsoft, 1999

Brief Explanation
Microsoft introduced the first commercially successful optical mouse in 1999, eliminating the need for a mouse ball.

Q12. Wireless mouse communicates through?
a) Radiowaves
b) Infrared wave
c) Microwaves
d) Electromagnetic signal

The right Answer is: a) Radiowaves

Brief Explanation
Wireless mice commonly use radio frequency (RF) technology to communicate with the computer.

Q13. Which of the following groups consists of only output devices?
a) Scanner, monitor, printer
b) Mouse, monitor, printer
c) Keyboard, monitor, printer
d) Monitor, printer, plotter

The right Answer is: d) Monitor, printer, plotter

Brief Explanation
Monitor, printer, and plotter are all output devices that display or print data from the computer.

Q14. How many bits of data can be transferred by parallel port?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

The right Answer is: c) 8

Brief Explanation
A standard parallel port can transfer 8 bits of data simultaneously.

Q15. Which port is widely used on wireless devices to connect with network devices for easy communication?
a) Serial port
b) Parallel port
c) Infrared port
d) AGP port

The right Answer is: c) Infrared port

Brief Explanation
Infrared ports are used in wireless communication, like remote control devices and some laptops.

Q16. Which port can be used for transferring files between two computers?
a) Serial port
b) Parallel port
c) Firewire port
d) Infrared port

The right Answer is: c) Firewire port

Brief Explanation
Firewire ports support high-speed data transfer and are often used for file sharing between devices.

Q17. Which of the following operating system is responsible for scheduling tasks according to priority and resource required?
a) Time Sharing Operating System
b) Real time Operating System
c) Multi User Operating System
d) Batch Processing Operating System

The right Answer is: d) Batch Processing Operating System

Brief Explanation
Batch processing OS schedules tasks in batches, managing them based on priority and resource availability.

Q18. Which of the following is a batch processing operating system?
a) Linux
b) VMS
c) Unix
d) Mac OS

The right Answer is: c) Unix

Brief Explanation
Unix supports batch processing, allowing multiple jobs to be processed without manual intervention.

Q19. The first graphical user interface was designed in the 1970s by?
a) Microsoft
b) IBM
c) Intel
d) Xerox Corporation

The right Answer is: d) Xerox Corporation

Brief Explanation
Xerox developed the first GUI at its Palo Alto Research Center (PARC), influencing later OS designs.

Q20. Which of the following provides the execution of more than one file on a single processor at a time?
a) Single tasking
b) Scheduling
c) Multiprocessing
d) Multitasking

The right Answer is: c) Multiprocessing

Brief Explanation
Multiprocessing refers to using more than one processor or core to execute multiple tasks simultaneously.

Q21. What is thrashing in an operating system?
a) Excessive CPU usage
b) Excessive page swapping
c) System boot failure
d) Infinite loop execution

The right Answer is: b) Excessive page swapping

Brief Explanation
Thrashing occurs when a computer’s memory is overused, causing constant paging and reduced performance.

Q22. Which of the following is NOT a process state?
a) Running
b) Waiting
c) Ready
d) Compiled

The right Answer is: d) Compiled

Brief Explanation
‘Compiled’ refers to code processing, not a valid state in the process lifecycle in operating systems.

Q23. Which of the following is a type of malware?
a) Firewall
b) Antivirus
c) Trojan Horse
d) Operating System

The right Answer is: c) Trojan Horse

Brief Explanation
A Trojan Horse is a type of malware disguised as legitimate software to harm or steal data.

Q24. Which of the following does not represent a programming paradigm?
a) Object-Oriented
b) Procedural
c) Relational
d) Functional

The right Answer is: c) Relational

Brief Explanation
Relational refers to database models, not a programming paradigm like Object-Oriented or Functional.

Q25. Which of the following is not a type of computer code?
a) EDIC
b) ASCII
c) BCD
d) EBCDIC

The right Answer is: a) EDIC

Brief Explanation
EDIC is not a recognized coding format, unlike ASCII, BCD, and EBCDIC which are commonly used computer codes for representing data.

Q26. Which of the following device uses positional notation to represent a decimal number?
a) Pascaline
b) Abacus
c) Computer
d) Calculator

The right Answer is: b) Abacus

Brief Explanation
The abacus uses beads in specific positions to represent numbers, making it an early tool using positional notation.

Q27. What does VLIW stand for?
a) Very Long Instruction Width
b) Very Large Instruction Word
c) Very Long Instruction Width
d) Very Long Instruction Word

The right Answer is: d) Very Long Instruction Word

Brief Explanation
VLIW (Very Long Instruction Word) architecture is used in CPUs to execute multiple instructions simultaneously.

Q28. The number of successful accesses to memory stated as a fraction is called as _____
a) Access rate
b) Success rate
c) Hit rate
d) Miss rate

The right Answer is: c) Hit rate

Brief Explanation
Hit rate refers to the ratio of successful memory accesses to total memory accesses.

Q29. Which memory storage is widely used in PCs and Embedded Systems?
a) EEPROM
b) Flash memory
c) SRAM
d) DRAM

The right Answer is: d) DRAM

Brief Explanation
DRAM (Dynamic RAM) is commonly used in computers and embedded systems due to its high density and low cost.

Q30. Which of the following is a plastic package used primarily for DRAM?
a) Zig-zag
b) DIMM
c) SIMM
d) Dual-in-line

The right Answer is: a) Zig-zag

Brief Explanation
Zig-zag packaging was used historically for DRAM chips due to compact arrangement and thermal management.

Q31. “Cyberspace” was coined by _________
a) Richard Stallman
b) William Gibson
c) Andrew Tannenbaum
d) Scott Fahlman

The right Answer is: b) William Gibson

Brief Explanation
The term “cyberspace” was coined by science fiction writer William Gibson in his novel Neuromancer (1984).

Q32. Where did the term “hacker” originate?
a) MIT
b) New York University
c) Harvard University
d) Bell’s Lab

The right Answer is: a) MIT

Brief Explanation
The term “hacker” originated at MIT in the 1960s to describe tech enthusiasts who enjoyed exploring computer systems.

Q33. Which of the following term refers to a group of hackers who are both white and black hat?
a) Yellow Hat hackers
b) Grey Hat hackers
c) Red Hat Hackers
d) White-Black Hat Hackers

The right Answer is: b) Grey Hat hackers

Brief Explanation
Grey hat hackers operate in the middle — they may violate ethical standards but often with good intent.

Q34. Which of the following is a Stuxnet?
a) Trojan
b) Antivirus
c) Worm
d) Virus

The right Answer is: c) Worm

Brief Explanation
Stuxnet is a sophisticated computer worm that targeted Iran’s nuclear program using industrial control systems.

Q35. Under which section of IT Act is stealing any digital asset or information written as a cyber-crime?
a) 65
b) 65-D
c) 67
d) 70

The right Answer is: a) 65

Brief Explanation
Section 65 of the IT Act deals with tampering with computer source documents and digital theft.

Q36. Which among them has the strongest wireless security?
a) WEP
b) WPA
c) WPA2
d) WPA3

The right Answer is: d) WPA3

Brief Explanation
WPA3 is the latest and most secure Wi-Fi security protocol, offering better encryption and protection.

Q37. Once _____________ hijacks your system, it might perform different sorts of unwanted tasks?
a) Server hacking
b) Banner grabbing
c) Cracking
d) Adware

The right Answer is: d) Adware

Brief Explanation
Adware is unwanted software designed to display ads and can slow down or hijack your system.

Q38. Packet filtering firewalls are deployed on ________
a) Routers
b) Switches
c) Hubs
d) Repeaters

The right Answer is: a) Routers

Brief Explanation
Packet-filtering firewalls are often implemented on routers to allow or block traffic based on IP address and port numbers.

Q39. Logical ports are also known as ______
a) Numbered ports
b) Virtual numbering
c) Virtual ports
d) Network protocol ports

The right Answer is: c) Virtual ports

Brief Explanation
Logical or virtual ports help in identifying services and applications running on networked systems.

Q40. Which of the following is the port number for FTP data?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23

The right Answer is: a) 20

Brief Explanation
FTP uses port 20 for data transfer and port 21 for command/control.

Q41. Which of the following is the port number for Telnet?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23

The right Answer is: d) 23

Brief Explanation
Telnet, a network protocol for remote login, operates on port number 23.

Q42. In which year did the Apple II virus come into existence?
a) 1979
b) 1980
c) 1981
d) 1982

The right Answer is: c) 1981

Brief Explanation
The first known virus for the Apple II appeared in 1981, marking early malware development.

Q43. What does MBR stand for?
a) Main Buffer Register
b) Memory Buffer Routine
c) Main Buffer Routine
d) Memory Buffer Register

The right Answer is: d) Memory Buffer Register

Brief Explanation
MBR holds data being transferred to and from memory in computer systems.

Q44. Which of the following is independent of the address bus?
a) Secondary memory
b) Main memory
c) Onboard memory
d) Cache memory

The right Answer is: a) Secondary memory

Brief Explanation
Secondary memory (e.g., hard drives) does not rely on the address bus and is accessed via I/O operations.

Q45. A program that can execute high-level language programs?
a) Compiler
b) Interpreter
c) Sensor
d) Circuitry

The right Answer is: b) Interpreter

Brief Explanation
An interpreter executes high-level programs line-by-line without converting them to machine code first.

Q46. Richard Stallman from MIT established a special license, the ________ license?
a) GNU
b) Free
c) Package
d) Commercial

The right Answer is: a) GNU

Brief Explanation
The GNU license allows users to freely use, modify, and distribute software under open-source terms.

Q47. 1 yottabyte = __________
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB
c) 1024 ZB
d) 1024 PB

The right Answer is: c) 1024 ZB

Brief Explanation
A yottabyte is equal to 1024 zettabytes, making it one of the largest units of digital storage.

Q48. The range of access times of optical disks is generally ______
a) 100 to 300 milliseconds
b) 10 to 30 milliseconds
c) 200 to 400 milliseconds
d) 20 to 40 milliseconds

The right Answer is: a) 100 to 300 milliseconds

Brief Explanation
Optical drives like CD/DVDs have slower access times, typically in the 100–300 ms range.

Q49. Which of the following is not a type of optical disk?
a) DVD
b) CD
c) WORM
d) Winchester

The right Answer is: d) Winchester

Brief Explanation
Winchester refers to a hard disk drive, not an optical disk like DVD or CD.

Q50. What is the blank space outside the printing area on a page?
a) Clipart
b) Margins
c) Header
d) Footer

The right Answer is: b) Margins

Brief Explanation
Margins are the white spaces around the content area of a printed page.

Q51. The ability to combine names and addresses with a standard document is called ________
a) Document formatting
b) Database management
c) Mail merge
d) Form letters

The right Answer is: c) Mail merge

Brief Explanation
Mail merge allows you to personalize bulk letters using names and addresses from a data source.

Q52. What is gutter margin?
a) Margin added to the left margin when printing
b) Margin added to the right margin when printing
c) Margin added to the binding side of the page
d) Margin added to the outside of the page

The right Answer is: c) Margin added to the binding side of the page

Brief Explanation
Gutter margin ensures space on the binding side for better readability and no text loss.

Q53. What are inserted as cross-reference in Word?
a) Placeholders
b) Bookmarks
c) Objects
d) Word fields

The right Answer is: d) Word fields

Brief Explanation
Cross-references use Word fields to link different parts of a document like headings or page numbers.

Q54. Office Button is symbolized with which feature on MS Word?
a) Paper
b) Ribbon
c) Arrow
d) Office

The right Answer is: b) Ribbon

Brief Explanation
The Office Button was replaced by the Ribbon interface in newer versions of MS Word for better accessibility.

Q55. Which of the following command is NOT present in Quick Access Toolbar?
a) Draw Table
b) E-mail
c) Print Preview
d) Prepare

The right Answer is: d) Prepare

Brief Explanation
The “Prepare” command is not available in the Quick Access Toolbar by default.

Q56. How many tabs are there in Ribbon in MS Word?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

The right Answer is: b) 7

Brief Explanation
There are 7 default tabs in the Ribbon in standard MS Word layout, like Home, Insert, and Page Layout.

Q57. Which function is used to count the number of numerical values in a range?
a) COUNT()
b) COUNTBLANK()
c) COUNTIF()
d) COUNTA()

The right Answer is: a) COUNT()

Brief Explanation
The COUNT() function in Excel returns the number of numeric entries in a given range

Q58. What is an Excel Macro?
a) A set of recorded actions to automate tasks
b) A function for formatting text
c) A type of formula for calculations
d) A tool for creating charts

The right Answer is: a) A set of recorded actions to automate tasks

Brief Explanation
Macros in Excel automate repetitive tasks by recording a sequence of actions that can be played back later.

Q59. What does the VLOOKUP function do?
a) Deletes a row
b) Searches for data in columns
c) Searches for data in rows
d) Calculates a vertical sum

The right Answer is: b) Searches for data in columns

Brief Explanation
VLOOKUP searches for a value in the first column of a range and returns a value from another column in the same row.

Q60. What is the Excel formula for calculating percentage?
a) =A1100/B1
b) =A1/B1
c) =A1B1
d) =A1+B1

The right Answer is: a) =A1*100/B1

Brief Explanation
To find a percentage, divide A1 by B1 and multiply by 100.

Q61. What is the purpose of the HLOOKUP function?
a) To search for data in columns
b) To search for data in rows
c) To create horizontal tables
d) To sort horizontal data

The right Answer is: b) To search for data in rows

Brief Explanation
HLOOKUP searches for a value in the first row of a range and returns a value from a specified row.

Q62. The total number of rows in a worksheet?
a) Unlimited
b) 65,535
c) 1,048,576
d) 1,068,576

The right Answer is: c) 1,048,576

Brief Explanation
Modern Excel worksheets have 1,048,576 rows.

Q63. What is the column width in a worksheet?
a) 26 characters
b) 128 characters
c) 255 characters
d) 256 characters

The right Answer is: c) 255 characters

Brief Explanation
The maximum column width in Excel is 255 characters.

Q64. The total number of characters that a cell contains is?
a) 32,767 characters
b) 32,768 characters
c) 65,535 characters
d) 132,767 characters

The right Answer is: a) 32,767 characters

Brief Explanation
A single Excel cell can hold up to 32,767 characters of text.

Q63. How many hyperlinks can be there in a worksheet?
a) 32,767
b) 32,768
c) 65,530
d) 65,535

The right Answer is: c) 65,530

Brief Explanation
Excel allows up to 65,530 hyperlinks in a worksheet.

Q65. Which logical function returns TRUE if all arguments evaluate TRUE; FALSE if not?
a) OR
b) AND
c) IF
d) ANDIF

The right Answer is: b) AND

Brief Explanation
The AND function returns TRUE only if all conditions are met.

Q66. Which function is used to match multiple values and returns the first match?
a) IF()
b) IFS()
c) IIF()
d) SWITCH()

The right Answer is: d) SWITCH()

Brief Explanation
SWITCH evaluates multiple conditions and returns the first match.

Q67. Under which Tab, the chart options are available in MS Excel?
a) Data
b) Insert
c) Review
d) View

The right Answer is: b) Insert

Brief Explanation
Charts in Excel are created using options found in the Insert tab.

Q68. Which chart type is used to show the proportions of a whole?
a) Area Chart
b) Bar Chart
c) Doughnut Chart
d) Hierarchy Chart

The right Answer is: c) Doughnut Chart

Brief Explanation
Doughnut charts display the percentage breakdown of parts of a whole.

Q69. What is the default file extension for a PowerPoint presentation?
a) .ppt
b) .pptx
c) .pp
d) .slide

The right Answer is: b) .pptx

Brief Explanation
The .pptx format is the default for PowerPoint presentations in newer versions.

Q70. What is the shortcut key to start a slideshow in PowerPoint?
a) Shift + F5
b) F5
c) Ctrl + S
d) Alt + S

The right Answer is: b) F5

Brief Explanation
F5 starts the PowerPoint slideshow from the beginning.

Q71. Where is the Slide Master located in PowerPoint?
a) Under the “Design” tab
b) Under the “View” tab
c) Under the “Insert” tab
d) Under the “Animations” tab

The right Answer is: b) Under the “View” tab

Brief Explanation
The Slide Master is accessed via the View tab to control layout and design.

Q72. What is the shortcut key for adding a new slide in PowerPoint?
a) Ctrl + T
b) Ctrl + N
c) Ctrl + Shift + N
d) Ctrl + M

The right Answer is: d) Ctrl + M

Brief Explanation
Ctrl + M quickly inserts a new slide in PowerPoint.

Q73. A PowerPoint ____ is a pattern or blueprint of a slide or group of slides.
a) Presentation
b) Style
c) Theme
d) Template

The right Answer is: d) Template

Brief Explanation
Templates provide predefined layouts and styles for PowerPoint presentations.

Q74. The shortcut key to close PowerPoint?
a) Ctrl + Q
b) F4
c) Ctrl + Delete
d) All of the above

The right Answer is: a) Ctrl + Q

Brief Explanation
Ctrl + Q is commonly used to quit or close applications like PowerPoint.

Q75. Which of the following is not a database object?
a) Form
b) Tables
c) Reports
d) Relationships

The right Answer is: d) Relationships

Brief Explanation
Relationships define links between tables but are not objects themselves like forms, tables, or reports.

Q76. Which of the following store command to retrieve data from database?
a) Queries
b) Forms
c) Record
d) Reports

The right Answer is: a) Queries

Brief Explanation
Queries are used to extract data from databases based on specified criteria.

Q77. Collection of related records in a database is known as
a) Record
b) Relationship
c) File
d) Table

The right Answer is: d) Table

Brief Explanation
A table is a collection of related records in a database.

Q78. Which of the following computer networks is built on the top of another network?
a) Overlay network
b) Prime network
c) Prior network
d) Chief network

The right Answer is: a) Overlay network

Brief Explanation
An overlay network is built on top of an existing network to add functionality.

Q79. How many layers are there in the ISO OSI reference model?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6

The right Answer is: a) 7

Brief Explanation
The OSI model has 7 layers that describe how data flows in a network.

Q80. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) Congestion control
b) Error control
c) Routing
d) Inter-networking

The right Answer is: b) Error control

Brief Explanation
Error control is the responsibility of the data link layer, not the network layer.

Q81. Which of the following devices forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet?
a) Firewall
b) Bridge
c) Hub
d) Router

The right Answer is: d) Router

Brief Explanation
Routers use routing tables to forward packets between different networks.

Q82. Which layer does the data link layer take packets from and encapsulate them into frames for transmission?
a) Transport layer
b) Application layer
c) Network layer
d) Physical layer

The right Answer is: c) Network layer

Brief Explanation
The data link layer receives packets from the network layer and encapsulates them into frames.

Q83. Which of the following allows LAN users to share computer programs and data?
a) File server
b) Network
c) Communication server
d) Print server

The right Answer is: a) File server

Brief Explanation
File servers store and manage files for users on a network.

Q84. Which of the following allows you to connect and login to a remote computer?
a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) Telnet

The right Answer is: d) Telnet

Brief Explanation
Telnet is a network protocol used to access remote computers.

Q85. Which of the following is billionth of a second?
a) Microsecond
b) Nanosecond
c) Terabyte
d) Gigabyte

The right Answer is: b) Nanosecond

Brief Explanation
A nanosecond is one billionth of a second.

Q86. Programs stored in ROM are called as?
a) Fireware
b) Formware
c) Farmware
d) Firmware

The right Answer is: d) Firmware

Brief Explanation
Firmware is software programmed into read-only memory, typically essential for device startup.

Q87. What is the total number of digits available in a number system?
a) Final number
b) All numbers
c) Radix
d) Binary numbers

The right Answer is: c) Radix

Brief Explanation
Radix (or base) defines the number of unique digits in a number system.

Q88. After POST sequence, BIOS gets executed. This is called?
a) Shutdown
b) Booting
c) Hibernate
d) Login

The right Answer is: b) Booting

Brief Explanation
Booting is the startup sequence when BIOS loads the operating system after POST.

Q89. Inkjet printer uses _____ color inks to create color tones?
a) Cyan
b) Yellow
c) Magenta
d) All the above

The right Answer is: d) All the above

Brief Explanation
Inkjet printers use CMY (Cyan, Magenta, Yellow) and often black (CMYK) to produce colors.

Q90. _____ printer is an impact printer?
a) Laser
b) Line
c) Dot matrix
d) Both A and B

The right Answer is: c) Dot matrix

Brief Explanation
Dot matrix printers create characters by striking pins against an ink ribbon, making them impact printers.

Q91. Script files sent mostly through email attachment to attack the host computer are called ______.
a) Worms
b) Phishing attacks
c) Trojans
d) Computer Viruses

The right Answer is: c) Trojans

Brief Explanation
Trojans disguise themselves as legitimate files and are often spread via email attachments.

Q92. When did the Indian parliament pass the IT Act?
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 2000
d) 2005

The right Answer is: c) 2000

Brief Explanation
India’s Information Technology Act was passed in 2000 to address cybercrime and electronic commerce.

Q93. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data?
a) 1.40 MB
b) 1.44 GB
c) 1.40 GB
d) 1.44 MB

The right Answer is: d) 1.44 MB

Brief Explanation
The 3.5-inch floppy disks used in the 1990s could store 1.44 MB of data.

Q94. WWW provides standardized access to:
a) GOPHER
b) TELENET
c) FTP
d) All of the above

The right Answer is: d) All of the above

Brief Explanation
The World Wide Web (WWW) allows standardized access to various services like Gopher, Telnet, and FTP through a common interface.

Q95. What is the size of an IPv6 IP address?
a) 64 bits
b) 1024 bits
c) 128 bits
d) 32 bits
e) 546 bits

The right Answer is: c) 128 bits

Brief Explanation
IPv6 addresses are 128-bit long, allowing for a vastly larger number of unique IP addresses compared to IPv4.

Q96. Which shortcut key is used to select an entire row in Excel?
a) Ctrl + Space
b) Ctrl + Alt + Shift
c) Shift + Space
d) Ctrl + L
e) Alt + Shift + L

The right Answer is: c) Shift + Space

Brief Explanation
In Excel, pressing Shift + Space selects the entire row of the active cell.

Q97. The other name for a Non-Resident virus is:
a) Direct Action Virus
b) Boot Sector Virus
c) Multipartite Virus
d) Overwrite Virus

The right Answer is: a) Direct Action Virus

Brief Explanation
Non-resident viruses act immediately and do not install themselves into memory; they are also called Direct Action Viruses.

Q98. Which of these storage devices has the minimum storage capacity?
a) USB drive
b) Hard Disk
c) Floppy Disk
d) Compact Disc

The right Answer is: c) Floppy Disk

Brief Explanation
Floppy disks have the least storage capacity (usually 1.44 MB), compared to USB drives, hard disks, and CDs.

Q99. Routers work at which layer of the OSI Model?
a) Data Link Layer
b) Network Layer
c) Physical Layer
d) Transport Layer

The right Answer is: b) Network Layer

Brief Explanation
Routers operate at the Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model and are responsible for routing data between networks.

Q99. Which among the following web browsers was the first to introduce a graphical interface?
a) Mosaic
b) Nexus
c) WorldWideWeb
d) Netscape

The right Answer is: d) Netscape

Brief Explanation
Although Mosaic was the first popular graphical browser, Netscape was the first to widely introduce and commercialize it.

Q100. A program that automates the translation of assembly language into machine language is called:
a) Assembler
b) Interpreter
c) Compiler
d) None of the above

The right Answer is: a) Assembler

Brief Explanation
An assembler converts assembly language instructions into machine code, making the program executable by the processor.

Conclusion

These 100+ computer MCQs are your ultimate resource for cracking competitive exams in 2025. Regular practice of these questions will boost your computer awareness, speed, and accuracy. Stay ahead in the game by revising these MCQs daily. Remember, smart preparation starts with smart questions. All the best for your exams!